Results 1 to 9 of 9

Math Help - A linear map and eigenvalue problem

  1. #1
    Junior Member gusztav's Avatar
    Joined
    Jan 2008
    Posts
    46
    Awards
    1

    A linear map and eigenvalue problem

    Hi,

    I'd be immensely grateful for any help with this problem:

    Let V be a finite-dimensional vector space, and let

    A : V \to V be a linear operator (a linear map) such that AB=BA, for every linear map B : V \to V.

    Prove that there exists a scalar \alpha such that A=\alpha I.


    Oh, and there has been a hint provided:

    Hint: show that A has at least one eigenvalue and observe the corresponding eigenspace.


    ***

    First, how could I show that A has at least one eigenvalue? Of course, if A has an eigenvalue \lambda, then there exists a vector x, x \neq 0, such that Ax=\lambda x; but how to show that there is such an eigenvalue in the first place?

    And I would really appreciate if someone could show me how to proceed from that to the final solution.

    Many thanks!
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  2. #2
    Global Moderator

    Joined
    Nov 2005
    From
    New York City
    Posts
    10,616
    Thanks
    9
    Quote Originally Posted by gusztav View Post
    Hi,

    I'd be immensely grateful for any help with this problem:

    Let V be a finite-dimensional vector space, and let

    A : V \to V be a linear operator (a linear map) such that AB=BA, for every linear map B : V \to V.

    Prove that there exists a scalar \alpha such that A=\alpha I.
    If you pick a particular basis for V then A can be represented by a matrix [A], and B can be represented by a matrix [B]. We are told that AB = BA, so [AB] = [BA] \implies [A][B] = [B][A]. Therefore, A: V\to V is such a linear trasformation so that its corresponding matrix commutes with all other matrices. In order to complete your problem we need to show that [A] is a scalar multiple of the identity matrix. Let [A] = (a_{ij}). Define E_{ij} the matrix so that the ij entry is 1 and everything else is 0. Notice that I + E_{ij} is always invertible. Thus, if [A] commutes with every matrix it means (I + E_{ij})[A] = [A](I + E_{ij}). If i\not = j the ij-entry in that matrix equation tells us that a_{ij} + a_{jj} = a_{ij} + a_{ii} \implies a_{ii}= a_{jj} i.e. the matrix [A] has all its diagnol entries equal. Now consider the matrix equation (I + E_{ij})[A] = [A](I + E_{ij}) the ii-entry tells us a_{ii} + a_{ji} = a_{ii} \implies a_{ji} = 0. Thus, [A] is a scalar of a diagnol matrix.
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  3. #3
    Super Member Gamma's Avatar
    Joined
    Dec 2008
    From
    Iowa City, IA
    Posts
    517
    Alternatively, the hypothesis given tell you that A commutes with all linear transformations B. That is, it is in the center of the nxn matrices ( Z(GL(n,\mathbb{F}))), where n is the dim(V). The center is precisely the nxn scalar diagonal matrices. But I like TPH's method way better, gets right down to it.
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  4. #4
    Junior Member gusztav's Avatar
    Joined
    Jan 2008
    Posts
    46
    Awards
    1
    Quote Originally Posted by ThePerfectHacker View Post
    If you pick a particular basis for V then A can be represented by a matrix [A], and B can be represented by a matrix [b]. We are told that AB = BA, so [AB] = [BA] \implies [A][b] = [b][A]. Therefore, A: V\to V is such a linear trasformation so that its corresponding matrix commutes with all other matrices. In order to complete your problem we need to show that [A] is a scalar multiple of the identity matrix. Let [A] = (a_{ij}). Define E_{ij} the matrix so that the ij entry is 1 and everything else is 0. Notice that I + E_{ij} is always invertible. Thus, if [A] commutes with every matrix it means (I + E_{ij})[A] = [A](I + E_{ij}). If i\not = j the ij-entry in that matrix equation tells us that a_{ij} + a_{jj} = a_{ij} + a_{ii} \implies a_{ii}= a_{jj} i.e. the matrix [A] has all its diagnol entries equal. Now consider the matrix equation (I + E_{ij})[A] = [A](I + E_{ij}) the ii-entry tells us a_{ii} + a_{ji} = a_{ii} \implies a_{ji} = 0. Thus, [A] is a scalar of a diagnol matrix.
    Brilliant!

    ThePerfectHacker, thank you SO much! This has been of great help!
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  5. #5
    Lord of certain Rings
    Isomorphism's Avatar
    Joined
    Dec 2007
    From
    IISc, Bangalore
    Posts
    1,465
    Thanks
    6
    Quote Originally Posted by gusztav View Post
    Hi,

    I'd be immensely grateful for any help with this problem:

    Let V be a finite-dimensional vector space, and let

    A : V \to V be a linear operator (a linear map) such that AB=BA, for every linear map B : V \to V.

    Prove that there exists a scalar \alpha such that A=\alpha I.


    Oh, and there has been a hint provided:

    Hint: show that A has at least one eigenvalue and observe the corresponding eigenspace.
    I knew TPH's way of proving it. But does anyone know a way of doing it along the lines of the hint?
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  6. #6
    Junior Member gusztav's Avatar
    Joined
    Jan 2008
    Posts
    46
    Awards
    1
    Quote Originally Posted by Isomorphism View Post
    I knew TPH's way of proving it. But does anyone know a way of doing it along the lines of the hint?
    I tried using the hint, but the first obstacle was trying to prove that A has at least one eigenvalue. How can we do that?

    We are given a linear operator A, and everything we know about it, is that AB=BA, for every linear operator B:V \to V.

    This means that A(Bx)=B(Ax), (\forall x \in V)(\forall B \in L(V)).

    Let's mark Bx := x', and so we must find \lambda \in \mathbb{F} (the field) such that Ax'=\lambda x'.

    If I'm not mistaken, if we manage to find a vector x' \in V and scalar \lambda \in \mathbb{F} such that Ax'=\lambda x', then the existence of at least one eigenvalue will have been proved.

    But how to do that is a different kettle of fish...
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  7. #7
    Junior Member gusztav's Avatar
    Joined
    Jan 2008
    Posts
    46
    Awards
    1
    Quote Originally Posted by original problem View Post
    Let V be a finite-dimensional vector space, and let

    A : V \to V be a linear operator (a linear map) such that AB=BA, for every linear map B : V \to V.

    Prove that there exists a scalar \alpha such that A=\alpha I.

    Hint: show that A has at least one eigenvalue and observe the corresponding eigenspace.
    There was also a second hint:

    Show that every eigenspace of an operator S\in L(V) is invariant for every operator T \in L(V) which commutes with S (in other words, such that ST=TS).

    But this can be shown like this:
    let S, T be \in L(V), let ST=TS and let W be the eigenspace of S corresponding to an eigenvalue \lambda. Let w \in W be an arbitrarily chosen vector.
    We have: S(T(w))=T(S(w))=T(\lambda w)= \lambda T(w),
    therefore T(w) \in W.

    *******


    To return to the starting problem, it seems to me that if we can show the existence of a scalar \alpha such that A=\alpha I for one operator B such that AB=BA, then by the preceding statement it can be shown to hold for every B \in L(V), if I'm not mistaken...
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  8. #8
    MHF Contributor Swlabr's Avatar
    Joined
    May 2009
    Posts
    1,176
    If you show that the Eigenspace is the entire vector space, then you are done, as then A-\lambda I is the zero map, and so A=\lambda I. I'm not quite sure how you would show that about the Eigenspace though.

    On another trail of thought, the matrix is constant under any base change - does that not automatically make it a scalar multiple of the identity? Or will other matrices be preserved?
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

  9. #9
    MHF Contributor

    Joined
    May 2008
    Posts
    2,295
    Thanks
    7
    proving that A has an eigenvalue is quite easy:

    let \{v_1, \cdots , v_n \} be a basis for V and define the linear map B by B(r_1v_1 + \cdots + r_nv_n)=r_1v_1. so the image of B is span \{v_1 \}. now A(v_1)=AB(v_1)=BA(v_1) \in span \{v_1 \}.

    so there exists \lambda such that A(v_1)=\lambda v_1. (this also shows that in fact every v_j is an eigenvector of A.)
    Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+

Similar Math Help Forum Discussions

  1. Eigenvalue Problem
    Posted in the Advanced Algebra Forum
    Replies: 10
    Last Post: July 5th 2011, 01:35 AM
  2. [SOLVED] Eigenvalue problem
    Posted in the Differential Equations Forum
    Replies: 24
    Last Post: February 27th 2011, 07:01 AM
  3. help for an eigenvalue problem!
    Posted in the Advanced Algebra Forum
    Replies: 1
    Last Post: April 6th 2010, 05:07 AM
  4. Eigenvalue problem
    Posted in the Advanced Algebra Forum
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: April 4th 2010, 07:52 PM
  5. eigenvalue problem
    Posted in the Advanced Algebra Forum
    Replies: 0
    Last Post: March 10th 2007, 06:29 AM

Search Tags


/mathhelpforum @mathhelpforum