Hi
I have the proof of this statement:
'Let f(x) be a member of K[x] where f(x) is non-zero and K is a field.
Suppose that K[x]/K[x].f(x) is a field.
Then f(x) is irreducible.'
The proof begins with:
'Assue f(x) is not irreducible.
If f(x) is a unit implies K[x].f(x) = K[x]'
Is this becasue f(x) is a unit, so it has an inverse so multiplying f(x) by it's inverse multiplied by another element in K[x] can create any element in K[x]? (Due to K[x] being closed under multiplication)
ie: a(x)b(x)g(x) = a(x) where b(x) = inverse f(x)
a(x) a member of K[x]
The next bit is that the previous line implies
' K[x]/K[x].f(x) = {0'} the equivalence class of zero'
This is saying that every element is equivalent to zero. Is this because if we have:
a' = b' (the equivalence classes)
then a(x)-b(x) is a member of K[x].f(x) = K[x]
This is true for all pairs of elements a(x) and b(x) in K[x] so all are equivalent to 0.
ie: a(x) - 0 is a member of K[x]
so a' = 0' for all a'
Thanks for your help
I know there is a lot of info here, but it's been bothering me for ages. I can't get my head around quotient rings.