If a function f, defined f(g)=g^-1 maps a group G to G, is isomorphic, then G is abelian.
How do I go about proving this one?
Edit: Sorry, wrong section, delete please.
If a function f, defined f(g)=g^-1 maps a group G to G, is isomorphic, then G is abelian.
How do I go about proving this one?
Edit: Sorry, wrong section, delete please.