i find the inverse, which is
a/(a^2 + 1) 1/(a^2 + 1)
1/(a^2 + 1) -a/(a^2 + 1)
which is correct, no?
so can i multiply that matrix by and get this matrix
which is the same as the initial matrix? so is it true that that matrix is its own inverse?
Sorry guys but i cant seem to work out how to do matrices in here properly