While dealing with a question on the forum, I came up with the following problem:
Ifis a subgroup of a group
, and
, does
imply
? In other words, is it possible to have
?
The answer (to the last question) is "no" ifis finite. Or if
is a normal subgroup. But what else?
I think this is either easy or false, but I can find neither a proof nor a counterexample...
I hope some people can help,
Thanks in advance,
Laurent.


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