I was wondering if x^p = 1 implies that x =1 in a finite field of characteristic p, or in other words
If x^p = 1 (mod p), does that imply that x = 1 (mod p) ?
If so why?
Ifthen
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Thus if.
What you did is correct ifOriginally Posted by Moo
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However, a finite field need not be a the integers modulo.
Thus, it does not cover all the cases.
This is Mine 14
th Post!!!