I was wondering if x^p = 1 implies that x =1 in a finite field of characteristic p, or in other words
If x^p = 1 (mod p), does that imply that x = 1 (mod p) ?
If so why?
If then .
Thus if .
What you did is correct if .Originally Posted by Moo
However, a finite field need not be a the integers modulo .
Thus, it does not cover all the cases.
This is Mine 14th Post!!!