Disprove with the counter example: If a^2 = b^2 (mod n) then a=b (mod n)..
where "=" means the equivalence.
I think...since, n\a^2 - b^2...proceeds to n\(a-b)(a+b)...shows that n also divides (a-b)...so can't we directly say that a=b (mod n)..??
how do I do this one?
Thanks for any help!