For some reason i'm having trouble with this problem...:o
Prove that a mappingis one-to-one iff
for every pair of subsets
and
of
.
we define something likeby
Thanks guys
Printable View
For some reason i'm having trouble with this problem...:o
Prove that a mappingis one-to-one iff
for every pair of subsets
and
of
.
we define something likeby
Thanks guys
a mappingis one-to-one if
for every pair of subsets A and B of S.
The contrapositive of this is:
iffor every pair of subsets A and B of S then
is not one to one.
intuitively,
Soimplies that there is some element in
that is not in
. So there is an element a in A and an element b in B such that
but
so
so
is not one-to-one.
To go the other way, we know that the function is not one-to-one so for some![]()
. using A={a} and B = {b},
.