1. ## Infimum example

The example I have is,

$\inf \{ (-1)^n + \frac{1}{n}: n = 1,2,3,... \}=-1$

Why is it -1 and not 0?

2. ## Re: Infimum example

Because for any odd $n>1$, $(-1)^n + \dfrac{1}{n}< 0$.

3. ## Re: Infimum example

Originally Posted by SlipEternal
Because for any odd $n>1$, $(-1)^n + \dfrac{1}{n}< 0$.
Ah OK I'm looking at it from the wrong direction.