The example I have is, $\inf \{ (-1)^n + \frac{1}{n}: n = 1,2,3,... \}=-1$ Why is it -1 and not 0?
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Because for any odd $\displaystyle n>1$, $\displaystyle (-1)^n + \dfrac{1}{n}< 0$.
Originally Posted by SlipEternal Because for any odd $\displaystyle n>1$, $\displaystyle (-1)^n + \dfrac{1}{n}< 0$. Ah OK I'm looking at it from the wrong direction.
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