For a strictly positive sequence, prove that $\displaystyle \liminf (a_j^{\frac{1}{j}}) \geq \liminf (\frac{a_{j+1}}{a_j})$.

I get that it's trying to say that the root test converges faster than the ratio test (hence the greater limit inf), but beyond that, I am drawing a blank. I don't even know where to begin.