Hey mate I havent had a chance to go over the post you had this morning, but i did cover this question in my answers. is the ideal because if you take any for you ideal I then .

So multiplying a whole ring by a prime element is obviously going to give you a prime ideal (think of what (2) in Z actually is). According to this (http://web.science.mq.edu.au/~chris/...olynomials.pdf) a prime polynomial is a irreducible polynomial, I am going to ask my lecturer on Tuesday also so if I get a different answer I will get back to you. I then gave you the proof for R/I is an integral domain iff I is prime in the other post.

Edit, now that I think ok it a little more it a irreducible poly must be a prime element just by the definition of what prime means. If p is prime then p=qr we must have q or r is a unit which is the definition of a irreducible polynomial.