Hi,

I was curious as to whether this statement was true or not, If it's true then can anyone show me a hint for the proof of it.

"If we have a linear transformation f:V -> V and if v(1),v(2),...,v(n) are linearly independant vectors in V, then does that imply that f(v(1)),f(v(2)),...f(v(n)) are also linearly independent in V. We are also told that f is injective, so f(v(k)) cannot equal 0, if v(k) is not equal to 0, since we know that with linear transformations f(0)=0."

v(i) means: v subscript i, for all i in [1,2,...,n],