I have now thought about this and suspect that the answer to my own question is as follows:
For an automorphism we have
Thus
and from this it follows that
Am I correct?
Peter
Dummit and Foote Section 4.4 Automorphisms Exercise 1 reads as follows:
Let and is conjugation by g, prove that = .
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A start to the proof is as follows:
=
=
=
Now we have completed the proof if
But why is in this case??
Can anyone please help clarify this situation?
Peter