Math Help - prove: restriction of an operator to invariant subspace is diagolizable?

1. Re: prove: restriction of an operator to invariant subspace is diagolizable?

Originally Posted by skybluesea2010
Right.
So, what does the set of eigenspaces look like for a diagonalizable operator?

2. Re: prove: restriction of an operator to invariant subspace is diagolizable?

Do you mean they are linearly independent?

3. Re: prove: restriction of an operator to invariant subspace is diagolizable?

they are linearly independent. is this what you mean?

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