I just wanna know if my argument could be written down on my final exam paper as a correct formal argument.
This is the problem: If m<n, show that there is a 1-1 mappingsuch that
for all
.
well, my idea is that with every element f inI associate an element f' in
defined in this way:
Ifthen
, otherwise:
.
then I defineas
. It's easy to show that this operation is well defined. Now, I define the map
by
.
To see that this map is one-to-one, suppose. from the definition of
, It's easy to see that
.
Now, with the definition of the function F, It's clear thatand we're done.


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