Prove is a well defined binary operation. How do I do this?
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Originally Posted by dwsmith Prove is a well defined binary operation. How do I do this? Well-it's obviously well-defined, and presumably from context you mean from where it's obvious since the maps and map into the integers
Originally Posted by dwsmith Prove is a well defined binary operation. How do I do this? We need to know the set of definition. Let's suppose the set is in this case, then we have to prove that for all , exists, is unique and belongs to . Edited: For example, Drexel28 supposed the set of definition is .
The set is I am trying to show associativity. I can't see how to manipulated that into:
It can be useful to express
I am working on proving this an Abelian group. I found the identity to be 1. I am having trouble finding the inverse element.
The identity is because for all .