Hi,
one of my books states the inequality as
for all
,
and says that equality holds if and only iffor
.
To me it looks like equality holds iffor any
:
I do not understand why it has to be.
Could someone please clear it up a bit? Thanks.
Hi,
one of my books states the inequality as
for all
,
and says that equality holds if and only iffor
.
To me it looks like equality holds iffor any
:
I do not understand why it has to be.
Could someone please clear it up a bit? Thanks.
The result is the following:
You have proven.
To proveyou'll need to choose a particular
.
Fernando Revilla
Ifthe equality is trivial and
is linearly dependent . If
decompose:
Using, prove that
and
.
That isor equivalently
being
.
Fernando Revilla