Hi,
one of my books states the inequality as
for all ,
and says that equality holds if and only if for
.
To me it looks like equality holds if for any :
I do not understand why it has to be .
Could someone please clear it up a bit? Thanks.
Hi,
one of my books states the inequality as
for all ,
and says that equality holds if and only if for
.
To me it looks like equality holds if for any :
I do not understand why it has to be .
Could someone please clear it up a bit? Thanks.
The result is the following:
You have proven .
To prove you'll need to choose a particular .
Fernando Revilla
If the equality is trivial and is linearly dependent . If decompose:
Using , prove that and .
That is or equivalently being .
Fernando Revilla