I can't figure this one out. Let be a group of a finite order. and for every , and . Show is abelian.
Follow Math Help Forum on Facebook and Google+
What does the notation (o(G), 3) = 1 mean in this problem?
sorry, means the order of , and is the gratest common divisor of . So the order of and 3 do not have a common divisor besides 1. SK
Originally Posted by skyking I can't figure this one out. Let be a group of a finite order. and for every , and . Show is abelian. Read here : Math Forum - Ask Dr. Math Tonio
View Tag Cloud