# Thread: Show that R2=r2 for inhomogeneous regression

1. ## Show that R2=r2 for inhomogeneous regression

I have tried equaling $R^2$ and $r^2$ and it comes out that $s_{\hat{y}\hat{y}}$ is equal to $s_{y\hat{y}}$. But then if I insert the $s_{y\hat{y}}$ into the $R^2$ and try to show that it equals to firstly defined $R^2$ I get hooked up. Probably the approach is not correct.