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Thread: Show that R2=r2 for inhomogeneous regression

  1. April 7th 2010, 02:17 PM #1
    anzej
    anzej is offline
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    Show that R2=r2 for inhomogeneous regression

    I have tried equaling R^2 and r^2 and it comes out that s_{\hat{y}\hat{y}} is equal to s_{y\hat{y}}. But then if I insert the s_{y\hat{y}} into the R^2 and try to show that it equals to firstly defined R^2 I get hooked up. Probably the approach is not correct.
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    Last edited by anzej; April 8th 2010 at 08:24 AM. Reason: Checking the approach to solve the problem
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