Originally Posted by

**Krahl** Hi;

is there anything wrong in saying that if u is a vector over $\displaystyle Z_4$ then for all $\displaystyle a,b \in Z_4\; au+bv=u+u+...+u+v+v+...+v=(a+b)v$

so that the distributive property holds for vectors over Z_4.

Also if

$\displaystyle c_1v_1+c_2v_2+...+c_kv_k=a_1v_1+a_2v_2+...+a_kv_k$

then by the inverse property of groups and the above distributive property

$\displaystyle (c_1-a_1)v_1+(c_2-a_2)v_2+...+(c_k-a_k)v_k=0$

where 0 is the zero vector.

Is there anything wrong with my post at all no matter how trivial? thanks