I'm really getting confused
Is it because all the nescecary constants eqaul 0 and there's no such thing as ? and that makes it linearally independent?
also, a more general question: to find if a set of vectors is a basis, one must determine if they are linearally independent and span the given vector space. Since the procedure is the same for both of them, doesn't it mean that if the vectors span the given vector space it also implies that they are linearally independent, and vice versa? I say this because to show the vectors span R^n then the procedure is to try to put them in rref form. To show that they are linearally independent they need to be put in rref form.