Hey, I'm having a bit of trouble w/ this one.... Let G be a group and let a be in G. Define a map Phi: G -> G by Phi(g) = a^-1 g a. Is phi an isomorphism? If so, prove it. Thanks in advance
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Originally Posted by bakerconspiracy Hey, I'm having a bit of trouble w/ this one.... Let G be a group and let a be in G. Define a map Phi: G -> G by Phi(g) = a^-1 g a. Is phi an isomorphism? If so, prove it. Thanks in advance What's the problem? Indeed, conjugation is an automorphism. Tonio
Now, what more do you need to show that it is an isomorphism?
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