Hi, apologies for the late reply. The last few days have been a mess so no time for math
The only thing I can come up with is that since

, then
^0 \subset (M \cap N)^0)
, but that doesn't really prove either (1) nor (2)..
Indeed, that doesn't...but
and now you get what you wanted...
I figure that I need to show that
)
. If I assume that (2) is true, I should be able to take the annihilator of both sides of (2) and get to the wanted result.
^0)^0 \subset (M^0 \cap N^0)^0 )
Then by (a) I have that
Ah, I find this to be really hard!
Yes, it really requires concentration. Try again, since the last days you did no much math (or at all). Tonio
Thanks!