PLease help me with this: If p is prime and p|a^n, is it true that p^n|a^n? Justify your answer. Thank you.
Last edited by mr fantastic; April 15th 2010 at 03:37 PM. Reason: Edited post title
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Yes indeed. If . You can show this inductively: It follows from the prime-property: or . Take . If you're done if you go on with . Eventually you'll obtain Conclusion:
Originally Posted by Dinkydoe Yes indeed. If . You can show this inductively: It follows from the prime-property: or . Take . If you're done if you go on with . Eventually you'll obtain Conclusion: thank you. you showed p|a. but what about p^n.
Originally Posted by Deepu thank you. you showed p|a. but what about p^n. so ...so
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