Prove that G is abelian iff...

**Magics6** · November 15th 2009, 07:01 AM

Prove that G is abelian if and only if the map $f: G \longrightarrow G$ given by $f(g)=g^2$ is a group homomorphism.

$f(g_{1} \cdot g_{2})=g_{1}g_{2}g_{1}g_{2}=g_{1}g_{1}g_{2}g_{2}=g _{1}^2g_{2}^2$

if G abelian then f is homomorphism.
Nevertheless i prove only one direction of the statement. Can anybody help me?

**tonio** · November 15th 2009, 07:11 AM

Originally Posted by Magics6

Prove that G is abelian if and only if the map $f: G \longrightarrow G$ given by $f(g)=g^2$ is a group homomorphism.

$f(g_{1} \cdot g_{2})=g_{1}g_{2}g_{1}g_{2}=g_{1}g_{1}g_{2}g_{2}=g _{1}^2g_{2}^2$

if G abelian then f is homomorphism.
Nevertheless i prove only one direction of the statement. Can anybody help me?

If f is a homom. then for any $a\,,\,b\in\,G\,,\,\,abab=aabb$ . Now cancel stuff here and show abelianess.

Tonio

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