I'm trying to show that if x^(2)=1 for all x in G then G is an abelian group. Attempt at the solution: xx=1 x=x^(-1) xy=(xy)^(-1) xy=y^(-1)x^(-1)=yx Does this look correct?
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Originally Posted by Louise I'm trying to show that if x^(2)=1 for all x in G then G is an abelian group. Attempt at the solution: xx=1 x=x^(-1) xy=(xy)^(-1) xy=y^(-1)x^(-1)=yx Does this look correct? yes - looks neat to me
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