I'm trying to show that if x^(2)=1 for all x in G then G is an abelian group.

Attempt at the solution:

xx=1

x=x^(-1)

xy=(xy)^(-1)

xy=y^(-1)x^(-1)=yx

Does this look correct?

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- Oct 7th 2009, 09:00 AMLouiseIf x^(2)=1 then G is abelian
I'm trying to show that if x^(2)=1 for all x in G then G is an abelian group.

Attempt at the solution:

xx=1

x=x^(-1)

xy=(xy)^(-1)

xy=y^(-1)x^(-1)=yx

Does this look correct? - Oct 7th 2009, 09:19 AMaman_cc