A is an algebra over a field F.
Let 'a' in A have the following property:
a.b = 0 for all 'b' in A.
Does this imply a=0? If yes why?
Thanks,
Aman
PS: I was trying the above for a ring. I am kind of convinced that in rings 'a' need not be equal to 0. Haven't been able to find a concrete example though.


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